The Immaculate Conception: painting by Giovanni Battista Tiepolo (1767)
“And coming to her, the angel said, ‘Hail, favored one! The Lord is with you.’” Lk. 1:28
Catholics believe that this verse is an indication of the sinlessness of Mary. This scripture passage is part of the Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception.
When was the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary formally proclaimed? Pope Pius IX made this infallible statement about Mary in 1854. The papal proclamation states that the Virgin Mary was free from original sin from the moment of her conception (in her mother’s womb).
What is an infallible statement? On such rare occasions, a pope would make a defining statement concerning an important doctrine. Infallibility allows one to make a statement free from doctrinal error. This authority comes from the Holy Spirit, thus protecting the pope from stating doctrinal error. This does NOT imply that the pope has perfect knowledge of such doctrinal matters. This situation occurs only in rare situations.
Why do Catholics use this scripture passage (Lk.1:28) to support the claim that Mary was immaculately conceived? The Greek word for favored one is charitoo, which means to be endowed with grace, highly favored, or be graced. The perfect passive participle of charitoo (kecharitomene) is used in this scripture passage.
What is significance of using this perfect passive participle? The perfect passive participle indicates an action done in the past but with CONTINUING effects in the present. Essentially, Mary was bestowed with a fullness (perfection) of grace in the past which continues to the present. Mary was given this grace from the moment of her conception.
Who was Mary’s mother? Mary’s mother was St. Anne
What is a common misconception about the Immaculate Conception? That this is about Jesus’ birth. The Immaculate Conception is about Mary’s birth.
Why do many Protestants object to Mary’s sinless nature? They believe that this improperly sets Mary apart from the rest of humanity. They do not believe it was fitting for God to set her apart even for the purposes of being the Mother of Jesus. Yet, with God all things are possible. After all, even Mary needed to be saved first for God’s plans for her!
Is there an explicit scriptural reference to the Immaculate Conception? No. There is evidence which can be inferred about the sinless state of Mary. Scripture states that Mary is full of grace. The original Greek confirms this.
Did Mary do anything to merit this favor from God? No. This was a grace and favor freely given to Mary by God. The bestowing of grace occurred at the time of Mary’s conception. Therefore, by God’s grace, Mary was saved from falling into the pit of sin. Otherwise, Mary would have inherited the nature to sin, like the rest of us.
What is the significance of the angel calling Mary ‘full of grace’? The angel is essentially a messenger from God. God is essentially giving a new name to Mary. When God gives someone a new name, God will have great plans for that person. (Ex. Abram ==> Abraham, Sarai ==> Sarah, etc.)
On a practical basis, why would it be necessary for Mary to be free of sin? In order to be born, Jesus would need to be in a sin-free environment. Mary’s womb is such a sinless place.
Why is Mary also called the Ark of the New Covenant? In the Old Testament, The profoundly sacred Holy of Holies contained the Ark of the Covenant. The Ark of the Covenant contained the manna (bread), the Ten Commandments (scriptures), and Aaron’s staff (priestly authority). Mary contains Jesus, the Bread of Life, the Word made flesh, and the eternal priest of God. Mary provides a sacred vessel for Jesus.